Here's the Scenario:
Say you are heads-up with a player whom has mucked a lot of raised and over-bet hands, and only showed the real nuts when he/she did show, so you are not really sure if this person is a bluffer or not.
You have 3x the amount of chips as the other player.
The first hand dealt heads-up, the player raises all in...you have rags and fold.
The second hand dealt, you raise with a pair of 4s...again, the player goes all in, and you elect to fold.
The third hand in heads-up play, you are dealt A3
. You raise about half the other players stack. Player just calls.
The flop comes off: 8K
3
. The other player moves all in.
At this point you have a pair and the nut flush draw. You have the other player covered, and are not sure if he/she has been bluffing with all these all in bets.
You elect to call.
You show your A3
Other Player shows: K2
Turn: 3
River: A
You win the game with a full house, Threes Full of Aces.
Other player hangs around after the game is over to ask you how you could make that call, saying that is not good poker.
Was this play really wrong?



3
. The other player moves all in.
2
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