Here's a hand I observed today while playing $25NL. This is a table full of fairly passive short-stackers. Just for kicks, we're going to play along with one of the other players. We'll play along with the Button in this hand.

You, as the Button, sat down with $10.00 and have been playing 40xBB the entire time you have been here. You have been playing for about 40 minutes and have had a couple hands but lost it all later and have had to refill once already.

As always, pick the option you like best. You will be able to see what the person we're playing as did but they may not have made the best choice.

0: Button: $9.92
1: SB: $18.20
2: BB: $24.75
3: UTG: $68.95
4: UTG+1: $14.72
5: You: $8.21
6: MP2: $25.42
7: MP3: $4.85
8: CO: $5.55

You: A K

SB posts $0.10, BB posts $0.25, 2 folds, MP1 raises to $0.75, 3 folds, You?

1) What do you do?
a) fold
b) call $0.75
c) raise to $2.25
d) move all-in



You actually call $0.75, 1 fold, BB calls $0.50

Flop: A 9 Q (Pot: $2.10)

BB checks, MP1 bets $2.00, You?

2) What range do you put MP1 on?

3) What do you do?
a) fold
b) call $2.00
c) raise to $6.00
d) move all-in



You call $2.00, 1 fold

4) Why do you think the Button flat calls here?

5)What is his [your] logic?


Turn: A 9 Q 4 (Pot: $6.10)

MP1 bets all-in $5.46, You?

6) What is your current range for MP1?

7) How do you think that turn changed your hand and MP1's hand?

8) Do you call or fold and why?


This was a fun hand to watch. Let's see how everyone here would play it.

1). I raise to 1.75, not 2.25.

2). Any ace, queen or pocket pair 77 or better. Also include spade hands that include face-middle, like JT . Ace of spades hand is unlikely but still a very real posibility. Also include in range, complete bluffs but this is less than 5% to ever happen. IMO, mostly likely hands, given the action to this point is AK-AT, or flush draw.

3). I call whatever the bet is on the flop because the short stacker is committing himself or herself on this flop bet and will either be all in on the turn or river and I am VERY comfortable with my hand!

4) Let the short stack bury themselves. They could have you beat at this point but by flat calling it, your making it harder to get away from the turn or river when the all in comes (which will come because of the short stack). Button is very comfortable with the hand and the way it is progressing and feels he/she has the best hand, so calling is +EV instead of raising which might scare off MP1 unless they go all in, and then you'll have to call to see, either way the money is going in, you just need MP1 to set the money in, because you can't get what they don't bet.

5) Simply put, $1 more raise PF, into the raiser, just because if you flop an ace, you are pretty much committed to the flop, unless you have a good read or the board is ugly. Your stack size is around $8.25. If you commit more right there, it makes your decisions on later streets, provided right conditions, to be easier and faster. If you only call the .75, you have about $7.50 effective. After the $2 call, you have about $5.50ish left, into a pot of over $6. When he all ins, it is effective all in for the $5.50. Soo your having to call $5.50 to win $11.50 pot., little better than 2 to 1 odds, but it leaves room for doubt on whether or not you have the best hand up to this point, and with AK, you need to be fairly darn certain of where your hand is heading. now change it to where the re-raise to $1.75 and a $3 flop bet from MP1, now you've committed $4.75, you have a strong hand, soo now the effective all in is $3.50, $12.50 pot or roughly, 3.6 to 1 odds, which is a snap call instead of having to debate the call.

6) Now with the All in, it seems like MP1 is trying to protect a hand like AK, AQ, A9 or maybe even Q9 (highly unlikely). It is very possible MP1 could have the Ace of spades and that's it. The All in polarizes this to flushes, two pair, big ace, or bluff.

Examining each.

Against most flushes, you have odds since you have the K Soo say MP1 raised with JT of spades, you have a redraw to the nuts (minus the 8 which would give MP1 a straight flush and the absolute nuts).

Against two, pair, you have redraws to a better two pair (3 kings left in the deck), you have redraws to a flush and you could draw out with another ace (in the case of Q9) or another 4 to make a better two pair against Q9, again, very unlikely hand here.

Against big Ace, like AK or AJ, assuming MP1 doesn't have A , your in GREAT shape. it'll either be a chop or a win, you don't lose .v. another AK. only AJ has a slight potential for loss (But not high at all, ESPICALLY if they are not holding the J of spades). Simply put, this is most likely situation.

Complete bluff (2nd barrel), not likely, don't consider it for longer than 3-4 seconds, but you need to be aware that it could be because passive doesn't mean 100% non-bluffer, it just means unlikely to be bluffing. NOTHING in poker is 100%.


7). It improves your hand and the All in bet from MP1 says it either improved his/her hand and/or MP1 is trying to protect a made hand against a flush re-draw by denying you the odds.

8). I Call this 95% of the time, there are times I will fold but I need strong evidence to fold. You have top pair, top kicker, redraws to 2nd nut flush, possible better 2 pair than what MP1 might be holding.

Let's do some assuming for a minute
If opp is holding AK, you are ahead barring them having A of spades, so give yourself 60% to win and 40% to tie here.

If opp is holding AQ, you have 3 Kings and 9 spades for outs, you have 12 outs, or 24% on turn.

if opp is holding Q9, you have 3 kings, 3 fours, 9 spades and 2 aces for 17 outs, or roughly 34% on the turn

if villian is holding A9, you have 3 kings, 9 spades, 3 queens or 15 outs, roughly 30% on turn.

if villian has a set, you have 8 outs (spades), so your roughly 16% on turn. Since A of spades would pair the board giving them a boat, you have to discount that out immediately.

Since you played the hand the way it is played, you are basically getting 2 to 1 on the all in, soo you need to be right 34% of the time on the all in to make this profitable, only 2 situations up top fits that in math. That would make this a clear fold, because most situations are -EV.

replay it re-raising the pot pre-flop and you get better than 3.5 to 1 to make that all in call (on avg 3.5 to 1, would vary depending on players flop bets). now, you just gotta be right 21% of the time to make the call profitable. All but one are profitable. Making this a clear and snap call by math standards.

But this whole situation also depends on what kind of player button is, if it was me, since I am very aggressive by nature, I play this hand to the end majority of the time!

Edit: I'll re-read the post in the morning and correct any errors in my grammar and make things more clear if they are fuzzy.

1. B) Only because of the fact that I am short stacked, and don't want to raise 1/4 (roughly) of my stack only to be re-raised and have to make a decision for all of my chips when I already re-bought once. And they all know that I am a passive player, so they could only re-raise me with a better hand that AK os. I want to see a flop in position and make a decision from their.

2. A 10 - A K suited, A J - AK os, 10 J, J Q, Q K, 99-KK

3. B) I chose this reason because I donply do not have enough chips to move all-in, or even raise $6. Calling puts me in a position to see a turn card, see where I stand, and still be able to lay it down if I think I am beat and have no re-draws.

4. (See #3)

5. (See #3)

6. A weak Ace, two pair, 99 or QQ. maybe a flush draw, and I would not suspect a turned flush here.

7. Now I have some outs in case I call and am behind, and it looks like I am. It isn't the best card in the world for me, but it certainly isn't the worst. I love it more than I hate it that is for sure.

8. I am getting nearly 3 to 1 on my money for this call. I am not risking my tournament life, it's a cash game. I can rebuy one more time and see where that takes me (as I have already re-bought for less than I should have twice). But i have a very strong feeling that this 3 to 1 call is giving me the right odds to call. I belive he does not have a flush, maybe two pair, but more than likely I have either the best hand, or am getting the right price for the 3 to 1 they are giving me. So I would have to call here.

Edit: I miscalculated the pot odds here. I thought there was more in the pot (typing more than I was paying attention to the play) so change everything in the above number to 2 to 1 instead of 3 to 1. And i would still call, because I have very little chips left and I can not put him on a set, but a single pair is more likely to me here, and two pair is also likely, but I believe that I am calling with either the best hand, or the right price for my pot odds (just a personal thing. I do not have that good of a read on him/her and am looking to regain my chips back from my previous rebuy).